Here’s an interesting constitutional problem that I came across the other day. The British Parliament, of course, is not bound by a written constitution. Whenever Britain granted independence to one of its colonies, that was done through a statute.
What if Parliament repealed one of these “independence” acts? Can that be done? If not, why not? After all, it’s just a statute. British legal theorists generally hold that Parliament cannot do this because it is bound by the principle that “freedom once given cannot be revoked.” It would be interesting to think about this concept as applied to our law.